[2017 PDF Free Download] Cisco 100-105 Dumps Latest Exam Questions And Answers, High Quality 100-105 Dumps Youtube Free Update

Get the latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf and vce practice materials from lead4pass, the best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers update free try. https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps pdf practice files. High quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free download, pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily at first attempt.

Download Free Latest Cisco 100-105 Dumps PDF From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VReEJYRlhNVjdGeVU

Download Free Latest Cisco 210-260 Dumps PDF From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRcnI0SE83bHBvQ1k

QUESTION 1
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.      100-105 dumps

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 100-105 pdf
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 10
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? 100-105 dumps
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps exam questions and answers free update.

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Free Latest Cisco 300-101 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers, The Best 300-101 Dumps Exam Youtube

High quality latest Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-101 exam test, 100% pass guarantee. http://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html dumps pdf questions and answers. Cisco CCDP 300-101 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

QUESTION 1
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections? 300-101 pdf
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3                    300-101 dumps
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer? 300-101 dumps
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about IPv6? 300-101 pdf
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use anycast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. 300-101 dumps When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html dumps pdf training materials free update.

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] The Best 300-135 Dumps Exam Study Guide And Youtube Free Try, Lead4pass Latest Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers

Comprehensive knowledge of Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps exam products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by highly valued in all organizations. http://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-135 test, 100% success and guarantee to pass 300-135 exam test easily.

Question No : 1
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Answer: C,D

Question No : 2
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command? 300-135 pdf
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Answer: D

Question No : 3
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems. 300-135 dumps

PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4
Correct Answer: C

Question No : 4
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 5
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Answer: C

Question No : 6
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen? 300-135 pdf
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed
state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Answer: D

Question No : 7
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two) 300-135 dumps
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Answer: C,D

Question No : 8
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Answer: C

Question No : 10
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two) 300-135 pdf
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Answer: B,C

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Lead4pass Latest Cisco 300-206 Dumps PDF Training Materials, High Quality 300-206 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Free Demo

Latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-206 exam test. http://www.lead4pass.com/300-206.html dumps pdf training materials. Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

QUESTION 1
Which statement about Cisco ASA multicast routing support is true?
A. The Cisco ASA appliance supports PIM dense mode, sparse mode, and BIDIR-PIM.
B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only stub multicast routing by forwarding IGMP messages from multicastreceivers to the upstream multicast router.
C. The Cisco ASA appliance supports DVMRP and PIM.
D. The Cisco ASA appliance supports either stub multicast routing or PIM, but both cannot be enabled at thesame time.
E. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only IGMP v1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from 300-206 pdf gaining network topology information from CDP via a man-in-the-middle attack?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3           300-206 dumps
On an ASA running version 9.0, which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two features are supported when configuring clustering of multiple Cisco ASA appliances? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. dynamic routing
C. SSL remote access VPN
D. IPSec remote access VPN
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east? 300-206 pdf
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 8
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices. 300-206 dumps
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall? 300-206 dumps
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-206.html dumps exam questions and answers

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] High Quality Latest Cisco 600-509 Dumps Questions And Youtube Free Demo, The Best 600-509 Dumps Exam Study Guide

The best and most updated CCNA Data Center 600-509 dumps exam training materials in PDF format, Cisco CCNA Data Center 600-509 products is considered a very important qualification, http://www.lead4pass.com/600-509.html and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
A stock brokerage firm requires that all trades are executed quickly with a minimal amount of delay due to network latency. Which software requirement is recommended as part of a business requirement?
A. The application shall process trades as soon as possible with no further delay.
B. The application should provide high-availability features to continue trading activities even in case of a software or hardware failure.
C. The application shall maintain the state of all active network links in real time and prioritize traffic flows that belong to trading activities on the links with lowest latency.
D. The application should set the latency attribute to zero on packets that belong to the a trading action.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You must develop an SDN application that meets these specifications. The solution must manage devices through a centralized controller to configure access control lists. The solution will monitor traffic at a packet level to determine which packets are coming from known rogue applications and/or devices. Identified traffic will be used as the basis to create new ACLs to be deployed back onto the network devices. The identification and provisioning steps should take no more than 100 milliseconds. Which three design options must you consider to develop an SDN application that meets these specifications? (Choose three.)
A. choice of programming and scripting language
B. choice of service set
C. choice of transport protocol
D. choice of deployment model
E. use of security and TLS
F. hardware platforms involved
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on this flowchart? (Choose two.) 600-509
A. All packets that are bound to host 10.10.0.1 are dropped.
B. Packet with source IP 3.3.3.110 and destination IP 10.10.0.1 are spanned.
C. All packets with source IP 3.3.3.110 and destination IP 10.10.0.1 are dropped.
D. All packets from host 3.3.3.220 destined to host 10.10.0.1 are dropped or spanned.
E. All traffic destined to host 10.10.0.1 is dropped or spanned.
F. OpenFlow v1.0 only supports “flows” that are defined based on MAC addresses, not IP addresses.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which three options are requirements that should be supported by Software Defined Networking controllers? (Choose three.)
A. extraction of network element and topology information
B. computation of the explicit routing path per application flow.
C. ability to route application traffic based on policy
D. OSGI
E. Agile development principles
F. service-oriented architecture
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which two protocols only keep track of the routers that are situated only one hop away? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. ISIS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which programming language and Cisco onePK Service Set is required for an application that performs at the packet level?
A. Java with Utility Service Set
B. REST with Element Service Set
C. Ruby with Routing Service Set
D. Python with Routing Service Set
E. REST with Utility Service Set
F. C with Data Path Service Set
G. Java with Developer Service Set
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
An application that leverages the Cisco onePK Data Path Service Set requires that TCP frames are inspected and discarded under a set of conditions. The sender is not informed of the discard. Which action does this scenario describe?
A. bypass or offload
B. DSCP marking
C. drop
D. purge
E. L4 redirect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco onePK API service provides path tracing capabilities?
A. Switching
B. Routing
C. Utility
D. Data Path
E. Developer
F. Discovery
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You must document that before your application applies any configuration changes to a device, the application runs those changes through a set of predefined, automated consistency tests called “ACTCHECK10”. The application applies changes only after the test has completed without any ERRORS or WARNINGS. Which statement about these requirements is true?
A. The system should test the configuration before applying it.
B. After applying the configuration changes the user should ping the device to ensure that everything still works.
C. The system should run consistency checks prior to applying configuration changes.
D. Prior to applying the configuration changes to the device, the system shall run consistency test ACT_CHECK10, and proceed to applying changes only if no errors and/or warnings are reported by the test.
E. The system should call the function app.ACT_CHECK10(“config-changes.txt”) method and capture the output. The system shall than go through the output to count the number of ERRORS and WARNINGS reported by the test. If the total number of ERRORS and WARNINGS is equal to 0, the system shall proceed to run app.ApplyChanges(“config-changes.txt”).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When an application must be developed that interacts with Cisco IOS, NX-OS, and IOS-XR devices, the application must use LDAP for authentication and have secure communication between the Cisco 600-509 onePK application and managed device. The customer prefers the use of Java for follow-on supportability by their staff. The customer is familiar with the Eclipse IDE. Which application dependency is relevant?
A. interaction with multiple device platforms Cisco IOS, NX-OS, and IOS-XR
B. use of LDAP for authentication
C. use of secure communication between onePK app and the device
D. choice of Java as programming language
E. customer’s familiarity with Eclipse IDE
Correct Answer: B

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/600-509.html

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps Questions And Answers Free Update At Lead4pass, High Quality 200-155 Dumps Training Materials And Youtube

High pass rate 200-155 dumps practice questions and answers, real Cisco 200-155 dumps exam training materials online free update, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. http://www.lead4pass.com/200-155.html Cisco CCNA Data Center products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process-
C. AS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
Answer : B

Explanation:
Router ID – Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 use a 32-bit number for the EIGRP router ID. The 32-bit router ID is represented in dotted-decimal notation and is commonly referred to as an IPv4 address. If the EIGRP for IPv6 router has not been configured with an IPv4 address, the eigrp router-id command must be used to configure a 32-bit router ID. The process for determining the router ID is the same for both EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6.

QUESTION 3

Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the 200-155 Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router.
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
Answer : C

QUESTION 4
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

QUESTION 8
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Answer : A

Explanation:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), 200-155 we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Another benefit of using named access configuration mode is that you can add new statements to the access list, and insert them wherever you like. With the legacy syntax, you must delete the entire access list before reapplying it using the updated rules.

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/200-155.html

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Free Latest Cisco 300-160 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers At Lead4pass, High Quality 300-160 Dumps Study Guide And Youtube

The best Cisco 300-160 dumps exam practice questions and answers, prepare and pass Cisco 300-160 dumps exam quickly and easily. Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 dumps exam is the http://www.lead4pass.com/300-160.html industry leader in information technology, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.) 300-160
A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values 40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set
E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.
F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunnels? (Choose two.)
A. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be 0x2002 and the next four bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address 300-160
B. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be locally derived and the next two bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
C. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/48 IPv6 address.
D. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/16 IPv6 address.
E. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:1315:4463:1::/64 IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing functionality?
A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. PPPoE enable
C. interface dialer 1
D. encapsulation PPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. 300-160 What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-160.html

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Pass 400-351 Exam With Latest Cisco 400-351 Exam Questions And Answers, Best 400-351 Exam Study Guide At Lead4pass

The best and most updated CCIE Wireless 400-351 training materials, Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 training resources which are the best for clearing 400-351 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCIE Wireless. CCIE Wireless 400-351 exam training material in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
Which three steps are required during the intial configuration of a Cisco Converged Access controller so that the access points can join? (Choose three)
A. The Cisco 5760 controller that acts as a mobility controller can support up to 10000APs.
B. Ensure that an active license is enabled with the proper AP count.
C. Ensure that the wireless management interface is correctly configured.
D. In a Converged Access deployment, the APs must be on the same VLAN as the wireless management interface.
E. To enable wireless services, the Cisco 3850 switch must run an ipservices or ipbase license.
F. Network connectivity is not necessary because all the APs connect directly to the Converged Access controller.
Answer: B,C,E

Question No : 2
In which direction does application visibility and controller mark the DSCP value of the original Packet in the wireless LAN controller?
A. in one direction, either upstream or downstream
B. in one direction, downstream only
C. in both direction upstream and down stream
D. in one direction upstream only
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.

According to the debugs and loin the Cisco WLC and Cisco 400-351 LAP which WLC discovery Algorithm is used by the LAP to join the Cisco WLC?
A. DHCP server LAP sends a layer 3 CAPWAP discover request to the Cisco WLC that is listed m the DHCP option 43.
B. configured LAP sends a uncast layer 3 CAPWAP discover request to the Cisco WLC IP address that the LAP has in its NVRAM
C. Broadcast lap broadcasts a layer 3 CAPWAP discover massage on the local ip subnet
D. DNS lap resolve the DNS Name CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTEOLLER cisco to the Cisco WLC ip address then it sends a uncast layer 3 CAPWAP discovery request to the Cisco WLC
Answer: A

Question No : 4
Your customer has a Cisco unified Wireless Network running AireOS 8.0 and wants to learn about the FlexConnect mode that is available on his APs which two statementsare true?(choose two)
A. When an AP is changed from localmode to FlexConnect mode a reboot is required.
B. A newly connected AP can be booted in FlexConnect mode
C. When an AP IS changed from local mode to FlexConnect mode a reboot IS not required.
D. Cisco Centralized Key Management require the use of FlexConnect group
Answer: C,D

Question No : 5
Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. DevStack
B. Docker
C. KVM
D. OpenStack
E. Xen
Answer: C,E

Question No : 6
When creating a guest account on Cisco identity Services Engine. 400-351 Which option in the sponsor portal allows for the guest credentials to be used for RADIUS authentication without requiring the guest user to log into the guest portal?
A. Set the Guest role to Guest
B. Set the Guest role to Activated guest
C. Set the Time Profile to Radius 1Day
D. Check the box to send email not send email notification id the guest user name is based on the email address.
Answer: B

Question No : 7
You are implementing a WLC at a remote site and want to make sure that you are able to sync up with the Cisco WCS at the central site. Which two statements about this process are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the WLC is behind a firewall, you must make sure that UDP ports 161 and 162 are open.
B. The Cisco WCS server does not need direct IP connectivity to the WLC.
C. Cisco WCS will not be able to communicate with the WLC if the WLC is behind a NAT device.
D. If the WLC is behind a NAT device, the WLC’s dynamic AP-manager interface must be configured with the external NAT IP address.
Answer: A,C

Cisco 400-351 exam CCIE Wireless is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the 400-351 companies. They have helped in driving thousands of companies on the sure-shot path of success.

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Download Free 300-320 Exam Study Materials At Lead4pass, Latest Cisco 300-320 Exam Questions And Youtube

2017 latest high quality Cisco 300-320 dumps exam training materials and study guide, 100% success and guarantee to pass 300-320 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two benefits are achieved if a network is designed properly with a structured addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ACLs
B. improved redundancy
C. hardened security
D. easier troubleshooting
E. added resiliency
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following features might be used by the Enterprise Campus network designer as a means of route filtering?
A. IPv4 static routes
B. Route tagging using a route map in an ACL
C. Tagging routes using the BGP MED
D. EIGRP stub networks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4                   300-320
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two options are storage topologies? (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Layer 2 messaging protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency?
A. VTP
B. VSS
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network.
Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

Cisco CCDP 300-320 training resources which are the best for clearing 300-320 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCDP. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry.

Watch the video to learn more:

[2017 PDF Free Download] Download Free Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam Study Materials At Lead4pass, Latest 300-075 Exam Practice Questions And Answers

The best Cisco 300-075 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the Cisco 300-075 dumps exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 300-075 exam test easily at first attempt.

Question No : 1
A voicemail product that supports only the G.711 codec is installed in headquarters. Which action allows branch Cisco IP phones to function with voicemail while using only the G.729 codec over the WAN link to headquarters?
A. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
B. Configure transcoding within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Configure transcoding resources in Cisco IOS and assign to the MRGL of Cisco IP phones.
D. Configure transcoder resources in the branch Cisco IP phones.
Answer: C

Question No : 2
The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices:
•Cisco Jabber Desktop
•CP-7965
•DX-650
•EX-60
•MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650
B. Cisco Jabber Desktop
C. CP-7965
D. EX-60
E. MX-200
Answer: A,C

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements about when user A calls user using SIP are true? (Choose three.)  300-075
A. SIP TCP/TLS ports must be opened from internal to DMZ and vice versa.
B. Deploying a Cisco VCS Expressway behind a NAT mandates the use of the Advanced Networking option key.
C. Cisco VCS Control and Cisco VCS Expressway support static NAT.
D. Deploying a Cisco VCS Control inside a NAT mandates the use of the Advanced Networking option key.
E. RT and RTCP ports must be opened at the firewall from internal to DMZ and vice versa
F. The NAT device must translate from 10.X.X X to 193.1.1.X and vice versa.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 4
When configuring Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, which CLI command enables this feature on the router?
A. call-manager-fallback
B. ccm-manager redundant-host
C. ccm-manager sccp local
D. ccm-manager switchback
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
What happens when a user logs in using the Cisco Extension Mobility Service on a device for which the user has no user device profile?
A. The Extension Mobility log in fails.
B. The device takes on the default device profile for its type.
C. The user can log in but does not have access to any features, soft key templates, or button templates.
D. The device uses the first device profile assigned to the user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B

Question No : 7
When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?  300-075
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 9
When using SAF, how do you prevent multiple nodes in a cluster from showing up in the Show Advance section of the SAF Forwarder configuration?
A. Configure the publisher node only in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
B. Append an @ symbol at the end of the client label value in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
C. Configure the correct node in the EIGRP configuration of the gateway router that is associated with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager node.
D. Configure the SAF Security Profile Configuration to support only a single node.
Answer: B

Question No : 10
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility are true? (Choose two.)
A. After an autogenerated device profile is created, you can associate it with one or more users.
B. An autogenerated device profiles can be loaded on a device at the same time as a user profile.
C. A device can adopt a user profile even when no user is logged in.
D. A device profile has most of the same attributes as a physical device.
E. Devices can be configured to allow more than one user to be logged in at the same time.
Answer: B,C

Comprehensive knowledge of Cisco 300-075 dumps exam CCNP Collaboration products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

Watch the video to learn more:

ciscoexamonline-200-125    | udemy-200-125    | pearsonitcertification-200-125    | examlabs-200-125    | gocertify-200-125    | techexams-200-125    | killexams-200-125    | examlabs-300-075    | lead4pass-300-075    | itexamcert-300-075    | packet6-210-260    | passexamcert-210-260    | passleader-300-115    | passitexams-300-115    | measureup-300-115    | learncisco-100-105    | boson-100-105    | professormesser-100-105    | quizlet-100-105    | cbtnuggets-210-065    | vceplus-210-065    | passexambox-210-060    | pass4itsure-210-060    | itexamfun-300-320    | best4exam-300-320    | examsforall-300-206    | teststarter-300-206    | digitaltut-300-101    | gratisexam-300-101    | 2cram-200-105    | 9tut-200-105    | blogcertskills-200-105    | technig-200-105    | networktut-300-135    | passexamvce-300-135    | passexamonly-300-135    | cciein8weeks-400-201    | PMPprep-PMP    | pmexamsim-PMP    | certwise-PMP    | pmpcorp-PMP    | pluralsight-PMP    | examsboost-500-265    | openlearning-500-265    | actualtests-JN0-102    | officialcerts-JN0-102    | transcender-1z0-062    | examsboost-1z0-347    | testcollections-1z0-347    | pass4sure-1z0-347    | pearsonitcertification-642-457    | itpassguide-642-457    | braindump2go-642-447    | dumps4cert-642-447    | konfigurasi-642-427    | gogoexam-642-427    | iptut-642-691    | examactual-642-691    | ine-642-661    | examlabs-642-661    | streamingine-642-611    | derakht-200-355    | killexams-200-355    | pearsonitcertification-200-355    | passcertsure-600-510    | micvce-600-509    | cciein8weeks-400-151    | certsgrade-300-375    | testkingpk-300-370    | easyquestion-300-365    | justcerts-300-360    | teachertube-300-550    | braindump2go-400-251    | braindumpsschool-300-210    | lead2pass-200-155    | verifieddumps-200-150    | examsreviews-8004    | examstorrent-CTP    | stcloudstate-praxis-2    | troytec-HPE0-J74    | dumpsquestion-NSE7    | free4torrent-MB2-712    | pdf4test-70-412    | ajsnetworking-200-155    | exam4tests-840-425    | itdumpsfree-1z0-599    | itexamdownload-700-039    | test4engine-117-202    | pdftorrent-HP0-S25    | pdfdumps-70-346    | freepdfdump-IIA-CIA-PART1    | dumpsnetwork-1z0-144    | barbarianmeetscoding-70-480    | accelerated-70-480    | udemy-70-480    | developerhandbook-70-480    | whatisccna-640-878    | latesttest-640-878    | examcoop-220-902    | cheattest-1z0-047    | mindhub-98-369    | gratisexam-98-369    | examcollection-CPP    | braindumps4it-300-085    | pdfcollection-642-889    | vceplus-642-889    | certblaster-70-646    | vceprep-600-212    | certifymaster-AX0-100    | examcollection-500-452    | ibmbraindumps-c9530-272    | lead2exam-642-737    | firebrandtraining-pmi-sp    | proprofs-640-802    | ucertify-200-550    | codingwebapps-70-486    | getfreedumps-1z0-528    | actual4test-mb2-704    | itexamonline-250-315    | 365cert-70-695    | trees4future-fcba    | dumps4free-1k0-001    | exams4sure-1z0-333    | mcmcse-70-680    | certblaster-70-680    | itexamworld-4A0-102    | braindumps-C2090-560    | passexamdump-HP0-A116    | passexampdf-M2090-743    | itcertonline-70-463    | actualcert-M2090-744    | ipass4sure-642-980    | examsheets-mb2-713    | ucertify-70-410    | testking-70-486    | prepnerds-70-697    | selftestengine-70-461    | examscert-300-208    | certifysky-70-411    | whatisccna-640-875    | vce4prep-642-999    | elearningexams-70-483    | passensure-700-501    | dumps4pass-700-037    | itdumps-101-400    | real4exam-LX0-103    | dumpstep-70-466    | collection4pdf-700-037    | crambible-70-332    | examcertify-210-451    |
http://esta.org.ua/    | http://esta.org.ua/    |